In article m,
"Kadaitcha Man" wrote:

Ghost wrote:

And, since M$ is an American comapny, they are bound by US
law....

Total ****ing crap. A company is bound by the laws of the countries it is
operating in, you stupid wankstain. If company A is based in country B and
commits a crime in country C, it is certainly liable to the laws of country
C. If the crime commited in country C is also a crime in country B, then
company A would also be liable in country B. I take it you have absolutely
no ****ing idea why companies are given legal entity status, hmmm?

For example, in the US it seems quite legal to cook your books and make
false statements to the tune of tens of billions of dollars... Enron,
Worldcom, et al. If those US companies had offices here and those frauds
were perpetrated here by those offices, the local directors would have been
given an opportunity of watching endless reruns of Seinfeld for 25 to 30
years.


And if the country where the crime was committed does not have specific
laws to cover that crime, then the law of the home country applies.

In other owrds- if a DOS was committed by M$ in a country who has no laws
agaisnt DOS, then the US law could and would apply because M$ is a US
based company.

Why in the hell are we going on with this endless freaking thread!